I have an apartment with a property management company (guess!) acting as the Freeholder's agent. My question is about my obligation to pay repeat notification fees for the same tenents over time, which I fear they will attempt to charge for.
My lease states "to give the landlord and the Management Company notice of every dealing with or underletting or transmission of the legal estate in the Demised Premises including all mortgages or legal charges of the Demised Premises within twenty one days after the same shall occur and to pay each of the Landlord and the Management Company such reasonable registration fees (including VAT) as the Landlord and the Management Company respectively shall from time to time determine."
I wrote to the Landlord's agent company and told them the property has been sub-let on an AST, gave them the start date and the tenents' names, and sent the £120 fee they specified.
They banked the cheque, but wrote requesting a copy of the AST and the expiry date. I refused to supply a copy of the AST on the grounds the lease did not specify I am required to do that (which they subsequently acknowledged)and told them that whilst the AST does have an initial term (which I didn't specify), it is likely to evolve into a Statutory Periodic Tenancy under the same agreement, and so they should not assume an expiry date and that instead, I would inform them when the tenancy comes to an end. Surely that fulfils my obligations to "give notice of the underletting" (which is not defined in the lease and which I have found no standard legal definition of online).
I have now received a "paid invoice" from them which includes an "expiry date" six months after the start date of the AST.
I intend to again tell them (for the third time) they should assume no expiry date, that I shall inform them when the tenancy ends and that any continuation beyond the initial AST term will be on the same agreement (for which I have no further obligations to inform them or pay any fee).
Am I correct? I'm sure they are demanding the "expiry date" only so they can re-invoice every six months, but since no new agreement is created, I can't see my legal obligation to pay any such charges.
Also, I've read a lot about these fees being outside the jurisdiction of LVT, through clever wording, but if an LVT is not the appropriate legal body for these charges, what is - the County Court?
I've read through so many of the Q&As on this excellent forum but can't see these points covered so I'm hoping you may be able to help. Thanks in advance.