To summarise my learned colleagues comments and that you have said IF so it is safe to assume that you are accurate and it has not happened;
Originally Posted by hazedunks
A letting to an agent as a company is a business transaction, they are not an individual, and cannot be an AST. They in turn can, if the former tenancy or lease allows them to, sublet the whole or part on an AST. *
Termination or a break clause ought to be contemporaneous to any let that they do, so consent to let, or deemed consent in certain parameters eg no longer than one year is essential.
If they breach any of the the other terms and you seek possession then as part of that process ( not a S21) you would have to seek a separate order of the court to award possession against the subtenant.
That assumes that you are unwilling to ask the court to transfer the tenancy to you ( assuming you don't require the sub tenancy to have clause that in the event of termination of the lease, you "take the place of the agent/landlord").
As this is cannot be, or if the agent takes it in their name, should not be, a boilerplate AST. You should take legal advice before entering into an agreement. If you have a mortgage they too will be very interested too.
That said I have seen ASTs to a company on the basis that it is simply a vehicle for occupation by a equity holder or employee. The risk is that the court will not grant possession or recognise the AST regime.
Based on the information posted, I offer my thoughts.Any action you then take is your liability. While commending individual effort, there is no substitute for a thorough review of documents and facts by paid for professional advisers. More ramblings atleaseholdpropertymanager.blogspot.com