Your solicitor should have explained the position to you when you bought.
There are two ways of documenting these charges:
1. There can be a variable rent charge which will be binding on successors of the first house buyer just because they own the house.
2. There can simply be a covenant in the original transfer from the builder to the first buyer whereby he agreed to pay this charge. There should then also have been a provision requiring any buyer of the house in the future to enter into a deed of covenant directly with the management company etc that is charging for the work. This is because positive covenants (e.g. to pay money) are not binding on successors in title just because they own the property in question, unless they have signed a deed to agree to make the payments.
So if OP wasn't the first purchaser of the new house
there is no variable rent charge (need to ask solicitor who acted on purchase or get a copy of the original transfer from the Land Registry at cost of £5 to check if the words "rent charge" are mentioned)
he didn't sign a direct deed of covenant when he purchased, he can't be made to pay.
As a conveyancing solicitor I believe the information given in the post to be useful (provided it relates to property in England & Wales) but I accept no liability except to fee-paying clients.