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Jack_M
16-02-2008, 11:47 AM
Hello.

This is my first post, so I apologize now that it is one asking for advice! I came across the site whilst trying to help a family member who is concerned about a situation they have found themselves in with a rented property, and this site seems a brilliant resource.

Here is a quick summary of what has happened:

In 2000 there was an AST made with a housing association who put 3 (unrelated) people in the property who were unable to enter into their own AST.

One by one, these individuals were eventually no longer looked after by the housing association but remained in the property paying their own share.

Subsequent to the housing association no longer paying any of the rent, yet unbeknown to the landlord, 2 of 3 moved out and were replaced by other individuals.

Last week, each of the 3 signed a tenancy agreement for a room in a furnished house under an assured shorthold tenancy with a non-resident landlord.

There has been no problem with the paying of rent, and the landlord does not want them out, but they do want to make sure that they now have a proper tenancy agreement with each of the 3 people.

Does the fact that one of them was there under a different AST initially (the one with the housing association), and/or that there was no preexisting agreement at all with the other two individuals, cause any problems with the agreement they have now signed?

Any advice would be most appreciated!

Many thanks

Colincbayley
16-02-2008, 14:45 PM
Does the fact that one of them was there under a different AST initially (the one with the housing association), and/or that there was no preexisting agreement at all with the other two individuals, cause any problems with the agreement they have now signed?


This does not cause any problems at all as the new AST's are replacement for the old one's.

Bel
18-02-2008, 12:10 PM
I would provisionally agree with Colin;
but would be interested to know who owned the property at the beginning and who now owns the property(if not the same)