Helen C
10-02-2008, 12:13 PM
In the original lease for my property I am obliged to pay 9% of the total service charge. The copy of the lease I received from the sellers solicitor had the 9% crossed out and 6.5% was handwritten instead. I imagine (!) this is not legally binding but the previous owners have been paying 6.5% and I bought the property expecting to pay this amount.
I have now received an invoice for service charges (no information, calculation or statement of my rights included). The year end is June 08. I have received an invoice for 6 months to June 08 based on 9%. There is also a credit for the previous 6 months (which had been paid by the previous owner and then I paid an amount for my period of occupation on sale completion) and the charge for this period has been recalculated based on 9%.
I am concerned about paying 9% given the nature of my property and the other properties. Both myself and my neighbour live in two storey dwellings with our own front and rear entrance. However I believe this benefit is reflected in the purchase price. We have access to communal grounds and driveways etc but there are no communal internal areas relating to the property.
Most remaining properties have communal hallways and most share a communal entrance. These areas are maintained to a high standard.
9% is the highest paid by any leaseholder. Two flats in the orginal manor house pay 9% but two pay only 7%. The proportions of the manor house are also significantly grander than my property and maintenance of windows etc would be higher. Cleaning (presumably of communal areas) is alo included in the total service charge which I am paying towards. It seems unreasonable to pay 9% when we probably don’t have the highest use of the service charge. If the allocation was based on property values I bought for £310,000 just after a property in the manor house was sold for £475000.
Can I dispute the % I have to pay and how?
Also the invoice contained no information of calculations and no statement of my rights. Can I withold payment on this basis and if so until when?
I have now received an invoice for service charges (no information, calculation or statement of my rights included). The year end is June 08. I have received an invoice for 6 months to June 08 based on 9%. There is also a credit for the previous 6 months (which had been paid by the previous owner and then I paid an amount for my period of occupation on sale completion) and the charge for this period has been recalculated based on 9%.
I am concerned about paying 9% given the nature of my property and the other properties. Both myself and my neighbour live in two storey dwellings with our own front and rear entrance. However I believe this benefit is reflected in the purchase price. We have access to communal grounds and driveways etc but there are no communal internal areas relating to the property.
Most remaining properties have communal hallways and most share a communal entrance. These areas are maintained to a high standard.
9% is the highest paid by any leaseholder. Two flats in the orginal manor house pay 9% but two pay only 7%. The proportions of the manor house are also significantly grander than my property and maintenance of windows etc would be higher. Cleaning (presumably of communal areas) is alo included in the total service charge which I am paying towards. It seems unreasonable to pay 9% when we probably don’t have the highest use of the service charge. If the allocation was based on property values I bought for £310,000 just after a property in the manor house was sold for £475000.
Can I dispute the % I have to pay and how?
Also the invoice contained no information of calculations and no statement of my rights. Can I withold payment on this basis and if so until when?