Flats converted over 7 yrs. ago- can leases be granted?

[jimmycliff]

Can anyone advice me on how long does it take before you can be granted leases from the council if conversions have been done for over 7 years?

Does it depend on which council you are dealing?

Can a mortgage be obtained if the conversion does not have planning permission but have been rented out for a long period over 7 years?:confused:

[jeffrey]

Can anyone advice me on how long does it take before you can be granted leases from the council if conversions have been done for over 7 years?

Does it depend on which council you are dealing?

Can a mortgage be obtained if the conversion does not have planning permission but have been rented out for a long period over 7 years?:confused:

Do you mean:
a. "...before you can be granted an RTB lease on purchase from the Council" as freeholder, where you as tenant purchase the flat under the Housing Act 1985 as amended; or
b. "...before you can obtain planning permission from the Council" as local planning authority, where the flat which you already own has been sublet but has no existing p/p for conversion some years ago?

[jimmycliff]

The flat was originally a 2 bed has since been converted to two 1 beds but without p/p now wanting to sell both as 1 flat without converting back to original plans.Question: will a prospective purchaser be able to obtain a mortgage for the property?

If so, after purchase can he apply for separate leases if he has prove of on going tenants for over 7 years

[jeffrey]

The flat was originally a 2 bed has since been converted to two 1 beds but without p/p now wanting to sell both as 1 flat without converting back to original plans.Question: will a prospective purchaser be able to obtain a mortgage for the property?

If so, after purchase can he apply for separate leases if he has prove of on going tenants for over 7 years

Look: planning permission and leases have nothing to do with each other. One does not apply to local planning authority for a lease!
If all that happens is that an informally-split flat returns to an unsplit state, what is problem? P buys whole and it is just as if never split.

[jimmycliff]

Sorry for sounding naive but I am very new to the property market and was making an inquiry on behalf of someone, I understand now and am very grateful for the information