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Rodent1
11-05-2011, 17:38 PM
I have a prop in an area which has had additional selective licensing imposed. I have not licensed this prop as it was exempt due to being let to asylum seekers thru a guvmint agency.
House now vacant - will prob let to a family so not looking to waste approx £1k getting the license that won't be required.

I have had an enquiry from an individual/LA who has offered me a resaonable sum to take it off my hands on a lease to him - he is then looking to relet to students etc. Clearly if let to a "HMO" group like this a licence is oligatory.

My question is; will the liability drop back on me the owner or him the "agent/main" tenant for the sublet ..as he is not going to pay to get a licence.

I am not intending to allow it to be let without a licence in this manner regardless - just interested in wether it would theoretically come back on me ?

Matthew Moody
13-05-2011, 19:54 PM
We have a lot of experience in doing this and essentially you need the lease to state that it is the lessees responsibility to gain this licence and not you.

Otherwise, the council will come after you as the owner of the house unless you can prove that you knowingly didn't know what he was doing ...?

Matthew

midlandslandlord
27-11-2011, 21:41 PM
Depending on the terms of the scheme (ie if Selective), a family let may need a License.

At present in Wales it's only NPT White City area that has such a scheme.

And they have it easy. It's only £350 then £250 per property and an 18 page form to fill in, plus all the work.

They are certainly a heck of a lot less aggressive than the Mad Regulators of England; you'd only have to charge each set of tenants 6 or so weeks rent extra every 5 years to pay for their paperwork and your time (assuming no work is required).

Nor do they seem to charge an extra £125 if you make a mistake on the form or in the reams of attachments.

:(devil):

ML