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johne1234
18-09-2006, 08:12 AM
I had always assumed that there would be 2 copies of a tenancy agreement, and that the landlord and all tenants would all sign both of them.

However, in my "Buy To Let Handbook", it says that the tenants should only sign one copy (to be retained by the landlord), and the landlord should only sign one copy (to be retained by the tenants).

Why is this?

But confusingly, it also says that the both copies of the Inventory should be signed by the tenants, but the landlord should only sign one of them, and that the landlord should keep the copy which does not have his signature.

Can anyone explain why this is the case?
Thanks in advance,
John

P.Pilcher
18-09-2006, 15:25 PM
Well, it's all quite logical really, you see each party can always put their own signature to any document at any time they wish if it is needed. What is not available so easily is the other party's signature! Thus, provided the tenant has a copy of the lease and inventory signed by the landlord, then the tenant can sign it any time he likes if he needs to produce the document. In the same way, the landlord needs the tenant's signature on the lease and inventory.

P.P.

Ericthelobster
18-09-2006, 16:38 PM
Yes, I think the confusion is caused by the use of the phrase "should sign" rather than "need sign"!

Personally I make sure that upon moving in, both LL and tenant both end up with original copies of inventory and AST agreement, both signed by both parties. No confusion there!