Gazeem
13-09-2006, 22:02 PM
Hi,
I would like to sell a house that I have owned since the year 2000.
The house has gone up in value roughly 100k in that time.
Until Jan this year (2006) it was the only property I owned (this year I bought a home with my wife).
It has always been rented out over this period.
Would I have to pay CGT? Until the end of 2003 I was in the Army and as such could not have lived in the property itself due to my work. Since leaving I have found a job in a different part of the country so again could not practically have lived in this property.
If I state that this property was my always my intended residence but my job would allow this, will this count as my main residence and then avoid CGT?
If not are there anyother strategies?
Many thanks
Gaz.
I would like to sell a house that I have owned since the year 2000.
The house has gone up in value roughly 100k in that time.
Until Jan this year (2006) it was the only property I owned (this year I bought a home with my wife).
It has always been rented out over this period.
Would I have to pay CGT? Until the end of 2003 I was in the Army and as such could not have lived in the property itself due to my work. Since leaving I have found a job in a different part of the country so again could not practically have lived in this property.
If I state that this property was my always my intended residence but my job would allow this, will this count as my main residence and then avoid CGT?
If not are there anyother strategies?
Many thanks
Gaz.