c0wb0y
13-10-2010, 23:16 PM
Hi,
I recently rented a property (private) in Scotland through an agent. As with previous rental agreements, my assumption was that I would have full access to the entire property. When I found that I couldn't unlock an under-stairs storage cupboard, I contacted the agent to request a key. They didn't know about the storage cupboard and didn't have a key for it, so they contacted the Landlord to request one. The Landlord said that the cupboard is used to store items for when the rental changes and that they had nowhere else to store whatever is in there, so would not be moving it or giving access.
As it turns out, that under-stairs storage cupboard is the only storage in the property other than wardrobes and garage, so it's quite annoying to find this out after renting the property - no mention was made of this 'arrangement' by the agent (they didn't even know about it) and it does not form any part of the rental agreement.
My question is whether a tenancy agreement explicitly refers to the entire property by default and whether this would be considered a breach of tenancy on the Landlord's part?
Thanks in advance for any advice.
I recently rented a property (private) in Scotland through an agent. As with previous rental agreements, my assumption was that I would have full access to the entire property. When I found that I couldn't unlock an under-stairs storage cupboard, I contacted the agent to request a key. They didn't know about the storage cupboard and didn't have a key for it, so they contacted the Landlord to request one. The Landlord said that the cupboard is used to store items for when the rental changes and that they had nowhere else to store whatever is in there, so would not be moving it or giving access.
As it turns out, that under-stairs storage cupboard is the only storage in the property other than wardrobes and garage, so it's quite annoying to find this out after renting the property - no mention was made of this 'arrangement' by the agent (they didn't even know about it) and it does not form any part of the rental agreement.
My question is whether a tenancy agreement explicitly refers to the entire property by default and whether this would be considered a breach of tenancy on the Landlord's part?
Thanks in advance for any advice.