Mike2009
14-05-2010, 11:51 AM
Couple of questions in relation to gifting a property.
My wife and I are thinking of gifting our share of a property to our children hopefully before the rise in CGT is introduced.
We know the gift/transfer will have to be at 'Market Value'.
The question I have is to what the 'Purchase price' of the property would be for the calculation of the gain.
The property was inherited from my father after he died. Originally in his will he left the house to myself (100%) but I did a Deed of Variation so the property went to myself (30%), my wife (30%) and my two children (20% each). My father died in 2003 and the Deed of Variation was completed in 2005.
Would the 'Purchase price' be either a) the IHT value when my father died or b) the market value when the Deed of Variation was completed?
I understand that as there is no mortgage on the property the gift would not attract SDLT. Is this correct?
Mike
My wife and I are thinking of gifting our share of a property to our children hopefully before the rise in CGT is introduced.
We know the gift/transfer will have to be at 'Market Value'.
The question I have is to what the 'Purchase price' of the property would be for the calculation of the gain.
The property was inherited from my father after he died. Originally in his will he left the house to myself (100%) but I did a Deed of Variation so the property went to myself (30%), my wife (30%) and my two children (20% each). My father died in 2003 and the Deed of Variation was completed in 2005.
Would the 'Purchase price' be either a) the IHT value when my father died or b) the market value when the Deed of Variation was completed?
I understand that as there is no mortgage on the property the gift would not attract SDLT. Is this correct?
Mike