alantran.co.uk
01-04-2010, 09:43 AM
Hi
I need clarity on my potential CGT liablity, but this is not straightforward, I'll try my best to outline the sencario:
Oct 2001: I bought house#1 on a Right to Buy for £17k in joint names with my partner.
Oct 2004: I transfered house#1 title deed to my name as sole owner, whilst at the same time I took out a mortgage in my name, for which I pay for. The mortgage suveryor at that time valued the property at £150k. During this time, I also moved out of home, renting elsewhere. My partner has been living at house#1 by herself since.
June 2008: I bought house#2 to live in as residence.
Feb 2010: I am now thinking of selling the house#1 for £120k.
Throughout this I have never let out house#1, but paid the mortgage for it.
For argument sake, lets say the legal fees and agency fee will be £500 and £2500, respectively. My questions are as follows:
1. I am a high rate tax payer and unsure of my potential CGT liability on house#1, if i was to sell for £120k, what is the CGT computation?
2. I have yet to make a declaration on my principle residence, can I use "flipping" as a way to reduce my CGT? If so, how does this work and how do I do this?
3. How do I make a principle residence declaration?
I need clarity on my potential CGT liablity, but this is not straightforward, I'll try my best to outline the sencario:
Oct 2001: I bought house#1 on a Right to Buy for £17k in joint names with my partner.
Oct 2004: I transfered house#1 title deed to my name as sole owner, whilst at the same time I took out a mortgage in my name, for which I pay for. The mortgage suveryor at that time valued the property at £150k. During this time, I also moved out of home, renting elsewhere. My partner has been living at house#1 by herself since.
June 2008: I bought house#2 to live in as residence.
Feb 2010: I am now thinking of selling the house#1 for £120k.
Throughout this I have never let out house#1, but paid the mortgage for it.
For argument sake, lets say the legal fees and agency fee will be £500 and £2500, respectively. My questions are as follows:
1. I am a high rate tax payer and unsure of my potential CGT liability on house#1, if i was to sell for £120k, what is the CGT computation?
2. I have yet to make a declaration on my principle residence, can I use "flipping" as a way to reduce my CGT? If so, how does this work and how do I do this?
3. How do I make a principle residence declaration?