Kath
20-03-2006, 12:34 PM
Unusual situation, for which we'd be extremently grateful for advice on:
We lived in our current property for 1 year without any contract (due to unusual circumstances it was unsure whether we were due to pay rent so it was considered by a Court). It was decided by the court that rent was due and from the date of the Court Order rent was paid and an assured shorthold tenancy was signed. The Court asked for no backpayment of rent for the previous year.
The query relates to some work that was undertaken to replace some dodgy electrics in the garage of the property when we first moved in. We told the owner (or to be precise the person with authority for the owner) that the work needed doing and asked if they would be happy to fund it. They agreed and said that if we got the work done and presented them with the invoice, they would pay for it. We got the work done and after 3 months the electrical firm were chasing for payment. The owner would not pay up so we paid to stop the company threatening legal action against us. We have been asking for reimbursement ever since, but two years on, and one year into a contract, we have still not been reimbursed for this electrical work, for which we obtained authorisation and commitment to pay from the owner in advance.
Is the owner legally obliged to reimburse us for this work? 1) They agreed to do so in the first instance (although this was not in writing – it was via email which we no longer have). 2) We now have a contract, although we didn’t at the time, and wouldn’t the owner be legally obliged to repair faulty electrics anyhow?
We’d be extremely grateful for any advice please! Thank you.
We lived in our current property for 1 year without any contract (due to unusual circumstances it was unsure whether we were due to pay rent so it was considered by a Court). It was decided by the court that rent was due and from the date of the Court Order rent was paid and an assured shorthold tenancy was signed. The Court asked for no backpayment of rent for the previous year.
The query relates to some work that was undertaken to replace some dodgy electrics in the garage of the property when we first moved in. We told the owner (or to be precise the person with authority for the owner) that the work needed doing and asked if they would be happy to fund it. They agreed and said that if we got the work done and presented them with the invoice, they would pay for it. We got the work done and after 3 months the electrical firm were chasing for payment. The owner would not pay up so we paid to stop the company threatening legal action against us. We have been asking for reimbursement ever since, but two years on, and one year into a contract, we have still not been reimbursed for this electrical work, for which we obtained authorisation and commitment to pay from the owner in advance.
Is the owner legally obliged to reimburse us for this work? 1) They agreed to do so in the first instance (although this was not in writing – it was via email which we no longer have). 2) We now have a contract, although we didn’t at the time, and wouldn’t the owner be legally obliged to repair faulty electrics anyhow?
We’d be extremely grateful for any advice please! Thank you.