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HerLadyship
08-03-2006, 15:53 PM
Seems like a ridiculous question I know - But legally how is "per calender month" (pcm) rent calculated if a weekly rent is provided. What happens if the owner wants to run a rental agreement for a year less one day. Are the tenants expected to pay for that day?

Poppy
08-03-2006, 16:18 PM
To calculate rent per calendar month:

weekly rent x 52 / 12

What do you mean a year less one day?

If you mean that the tenancy started, say, 8 March 2006 and runs for one calendar year, it would therefore expire on 7 March 2007. That's not a year less one day.

In the Gregorian calendar a year starts on 1 January and ends on 31 December.

Ericthelobster
08-03-2006, 19:40 PM
If you mean that the tenancy started, say, 8 March 2006 and runs for one calendar year, it would therefore expire on 7 March 2007. That's not a year less one day.Depends on the timing though, doesn't it? It's pretty common for AST agreements to specify time of day as well as the date, so that if new tenants are moving in immediately, there is a gap of a few hours at least to prevent clashes, and to give time for the LL to check over the property as well. My ASTs say "you will have the property from 1 April 2006 until 12:00 am on 30 September 2006"; the following tenant gets the property on 1 October (ie from midnight if they want). I make this condition of the tenancy clear at the outset, and don't make any adjustment for the monthly rent in the last month - it's never caused a problem.