Moodyman
31-07-2008, 16:41 PM
Hello,
Hope you can help.
I have two properties - one renting (property A), the other habiting (property B).
I've never lived in property A which is now mortgage-free.
Bought property B early this year with a sizeable interest-only mortgage.
Have been using the rent from property A to pay the mortgage on property B. Is this acceptable under the tax rules or do I have to move the mortgage to property A to benefit from offsetting (rental income against interest payments).
Thanks
Hope you can help.
I have two properties - one renting (property A), the other habiting (property B).
I've never lived in property A which is now mortgage-free.
Bought property B early this year with a sizeable interest-only mortgage.
Have been using the rent from property A to pay the mortgage on property B. Is this acceptable under the tax rules or do I have to move the mortgage to property A to benefit from offsetting (rental income against interest payments).
Thanks