barney1979
21-04-2008, 10:00 AM
Hi,
Wondering if anybody can shed some light on this situation. Basically my wife and I bought an existing HMO property recently where the tenants were all signed up on AST's......or so we thought.
After serving notice on one of the tenants to vacate, we had a shock when Citizens Advice contacted us (in a non too pleasant attitude), stating that she was in fact an Assured Tenant and the AST we have is forged ! The previous owners had tried to evict with no joy.
Essentially, this particular tenant had entered into a tenancy agreement in 1996 (prior to the new tenancy legislation in 1997) which was a rolling 2 week contract with 2 weeks notice on either side. Rent paid weekly. However, as the landlord at the time (the one before our vendors) never served a s.20 notice on her - apparently it automatically became a Assured Tenant (which as I'm sure people know, means you can only get rid of the Tenant in very limited situations).
We were pondering if it was possible to establish that she is a licensee of the property as opposed to a tenant. Reasons for this are that she pays no bills, and shares a bathroom and other communal areas (hallway, garden etc) with other tenants.
Does anybody know what the criteria are for establising a licensee over and above a tenant?
Obviously we could sue the vendors for fradulent misrepresentation but aren't keen to go down a potentially lengthy and costly legal battle.
Suggestions VERY welcome !!
Many thanks
Mark
Wondering if anybody can shed some light on this situation. Basically my wife and I bought an existing HMO property recently where the tenants were all signed up on AST's......or so we thought.
After serving notice on one of the tenants to vacate, we had a shock when Citizens Advice contacted us (in a non too pleasant attitude), stating that she was in fact an Assured Tenant and the AST we have is forged ! The previous owners had tried to evict with no joy.
Essentially, this particular tenant had entered into a tenancy agreement in 1996 (prior to the new tenancy legislation in 1997) which was a rolling 2 week contract with 2 weeks notice on either side. Rent paid weekly. However, as the landlord at the time (the one before our vendors) never served a s.20 notice on her - apparently it automatically became a Assured Tenant (which as I'm sure people know, means you can only get rid of the Tenant in very limited situations).
We were pondering if it was possible to establish that she is a licensee of the property as opposed to a tenant. Reasons for this are that she pays no bills, and shares a bathroom and other communal areas (hallway, garden etc) with other tenants.
Does anybody know what the criteria are for establising a licensee over and above a tenant?
Obviously we could sue the vendors for fradulent misrepresentation but aren't keen to go down a potentially lengthy and costly legal battle.
Suggestions VERY welcome !!
Many thanks
Mark